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Eldar Banshee Mask


thor1234

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so i was playing a game at my local store the other day against an eldar opponent he charged his Banshees into one of my squads and failed to do enough damage, in my turn i countered by charging in my own unit which benefited from furious charge i calculated my attacks and went to roll, my oppoent declared he would attack my charging squad "ok" i said.... my opponent then tried to claim that as this was my charging units "first round" of combat that his banshees were I10!!! now is this right? or is he trying to claim some unfair advantage here??
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He is trying to get an unfair advantage. When it states first round of combat it means when the banshee are charged or charge and are not already in a combat from the previous player turn. In your example he had it when he charged your first squad. But will not get it again from your squad charging into them because they were already in combat from his turn.
Obviously it refers to the Banshees' first round of an assault, but if you wanted to be overly technical, then it is "the first round of an assault", without specifying. So if the assault had been going on for at least one round and the Banshees charge in, they would not get that bonus. It does not matter that it would be their first round in this assault. The assault itself had been going on for at least a round. However, I think we shouuld be fair to the Eldar, and it was probably meant as their first round in an assault. So if the Banshees charge into an ongoing assault, they will get the benefits. If the Banshees are in an ongoing assault and a new unit charges in, they wont get any benefits.

Its the Banshees first round in any given assault. Ie, the turn they launch an assault or if they are assaulted while not already in combat.

 

A better way of looking at it would be any time they can get a +1 A bonus for assaulting or counter-assaulting (did he give them that?) as a good guideline for when the 'first round' is.

As a man who owns 60 howling banshees (Although owning lots of something isn't the same as knowing anything about them I admit!) I like to think I know their rules... So I have to agree with the others where they say that the Banshee mask applies when the Banshees first become engaged in an assault...

 

Basically at the end of the last assault phase after all attacks, break tests, rolls for hit and run and all that have been done were the banshees locked in assault? If the answer is yes Then too bad for them! If the answer is no then they can use their masks.

.... my opponent then tried to claim that as this was my charging units "first round" of combat that his banshees were I10!!!

If your charging unit had a mask, they would be I10 since it is their first round of an assault. The mask is on the banshee unit and they are already in an assault. So no.

 

Put another way ... how can it be their first round if they are already locked in combat?

thanks for giving some clear cut examples brothers, he was basicaslly claiming it was his banshees 'First round of combat' against the charging unit and even went as far as saying an faq he read somewhere supported him...... alas he got a good kicking all the same!

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